Please take into account that it depends on load complex impedance and amplifier circuit topology. Please let me answer you by measurements of amplitude frequency response and phase frequency response of a conventional class AB amplifier vs. TPA3255 AIYIMA A07 - and think about it. If more discussion is needed, a separate thread would be an option, I can paste my measurements there. Is this audible in a DBT test? Yes, not easily, but with better than 5% uncertainty. Is this because of phase response? Just related to, as a derived parameter. Can we read this from 4/8 ohm resistive response? With difficulties.
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P.S.: new plots with soundcard FR elimination
Why is phase change not apparent when amplitude FR clearly had had a big change because of the LC filter resonance? I thought douglas self said that phase FR is complety defined by its amplitude FR, or his statement is only applicable with class a/b topologies?
Edit: AIYIMA A07, -40+ degrees at 20kHz is as good as Hypex NC400 phase shift. Now I'm curious on how this PA5 or other PFFB TPA3255 compares.
If you don’t think phase is audible flip polarity of one speaker for 180deg. That’s an extreme case I know but despite a room having reflections, the direct sound from the speaker is very important. Even on non bass heavy content music the “phasiness” is instantly detectable (it is in the 1kHz to 6kHz range). I can tell when speakers are accidentally flipped with ears instantly.
Sound waves will cancel each other out and the effect is more detectable by the ears in low frequencies. Apparently the sound stage becomes wider though, I thought it is because the bass was gone and I'm hearing more mids and highs, but if you remove the bass content in music, the effect is not the same. Is it because the sound waves in the room or ear response is now messier
? I think our ears can really detect if there's something's wrong that's why some people prefer full range speaker driver for best soundstage and imaging. (most people don't care)