DeepFried
Active Member
Nope. As already said, that the likelihood that two different headphone can ever have the exact same FR (below threshold of audibility) at your own eardrum is very low without going through a lot of efforts.
Therefore, since it remains an uncontrolled variable, you can’t attribute to another the cause of what you’re hearing.
Perhaps you didn't read the paper you linked to me. The 4 sample headphones were EQ'd and then recorded, and then played back over a set of stax. So given that all the samples were tested via a single set of headphones I think we can say variables attributable to the headphone interacting with the head have been minimized.