And of course the conclusion that blind tests are just pointless.In other words the test and can firm his assumptions, so the test must be wrong.
Silly man... He's obviously never done that to himself before It's a huge epiphany when you do 'hear' differences that don't exist (because nothing has changed) in comparisons like this. Changed my viewpoint forever...I figured somebody would post that here.
Amazingly, he pulled just the wrong inference from some of the results. For instance, he was astonished that when they did a test in which nothing was actually changed, a large proportion of listeners reported “hearing differences”
From this, he drew the inference not “wow people really can think they hear a difference is when there are none” but rather that there must have been something wrong with the test. Because of course, he assumes that if no changes were made, nobody should report a difference.
In other words the test and can firm his assumptions, so the test must be wrong.
I figured somebody would post that here.
Amazingly, he pulled just the wrong inference from some of the results. For instance, he was astonished that when they did a test in which nothing was actually changed, a large proportion of listeners reported “hearing differences”
From this, he drew the inference not “wow people really can think they hear a difference is when there are none” but rather that there must have been something wrong with the test. Because of course, he assumes that if no changes were made, nobody should report a difference.
Amazingly, he pulled just the wrong inference from some of the results. For instance, he was astonished that when they did a test in which nothing was actually changed, a large proportion of listeners reported “hearing differences”
Be careful.. the reverse statement is then also true In reality though, neither one is.under Occam’s razor surely the explanation for ‘no difference was heard’ is ‘no difference existed’
Just sayin’ !
No material difference existed as could be identified within the limits of human hearing and auditory memory … ?under Occam’s razor surely the explanation for ‘no difference was heard’ is ‘no difference existed’
Just to add - Ockham is about a mile from our house - as in home of the razor!Be careful.. the reverse statement is then also true In reality though, neither one is.
He and the listeners had that right in their hand but let it go. It would have been such a teaching moment right then and then.You tell people until you are blue in the face about how easy it is to imagine things, but nothing lands like having a personal experience. Once you've experienced being SURE you perceive something which disappears once bias controls are in place, it can be a life-long lesson.