Is this supposed to prove there is an audible difference between the recordings?
My intent is not to prove anything. Rather, to illustrate why I believe that the hi-res vs CD perception depends
a lot on the music genre, on how a particular music piece was captured and mixed, on the listener, and on many other parameters.
To illustrate the illustration of the point. A puzzle by Lewis Carrol (paraphrasing):
- You need to walk to a train station to catch a train departing in 2 hours.
- The distance to the train station is 5 miles.
- You walk with the speed of 3 miles per hour.
- Will you catch the train?
The straightforward answer is: "Yes."
Lewis Carrol retorts: "But what if on the way to the station, a mad bull starts chasing you?"
Morale of the story: the correct answer is "I don't know".
So, the correct answer to the "Is there an audible difference between ... ?", being hotly debated on the forums like this one, is, in most cases, "I don't know", as it has many important parameters under-specified.
Once you concretize the question with the music, equipment, person, and person't physiological condition, then you may get to a more concrete answer. Averaging these answers over many variations of music, equipment, person, and trials, will get you a general answer. If that's what you are after, great. If you are interested in the answer regarding concretely your music and your equipment - you'd need to experiment on yourself.