Speculating about the possibility that as of now non-measurable differences could potentially result in audible differences is not worth consideration until the existence of the audible difference has been rigorously demonstrated.
It is not as if we were examining some strange correlation such as audiophiles having a lower life expectancy than the average population, in which case an open-ended investigation could be warranted and a full examination/analysis of possible confounding factors should be done.
Here we have nothing, except for feelings and random thoughts on the Internet.
My own unchanged systems can sound wonderful or awful to me, depending on the day/mood. In some cases, this is a huge subjective difference.
I have only two options here
1) something has changed in the way I subjectively experience music. Usually described as "I am in no mood for..."
2) some mysterious unmeasurable physical process has significantly perturbed my system.
Which one is the most likely?
Well yes, I must agree that my mood, like yours, frequently changes my
enjoyment of my system very greatly. However, in my case, it doesn't much change my perception of the SQ except to make me more annoyed by the faults.
So there is a vast body of
anecdotal evidence for sound difference
AND there is notable consistency in the nature of those differences among experienced audiophiles. But anecdotal evidence, (especially when there is much of it), should not be dismissed out of hand: it is a legitimate basis for more rigorous investigation.
Regarding scientific rigor, testing requires both validity and duplicability, (reliability). The duplicability may very well restrict the scope or applicability of the validity. Psychoacoustic, (
e.g. ABX testing for differences),, like psycho
Whatever testing in general, is fraught with that difficulty.