Detecting a »perfectly« Room-EQ’d 2-ch set by inverting one speaker’s polarity?

[Golf]

In order to check my idea of Room-EQ:

In theory, if we assume a given 2-ch set that is perfectly Room-EQ’d, could it be a suitable test then to invert the polarity of one speaker? As the result should be, that listening to this set then would mean to hear nothing?

Or more practically: Would it make sense to try to judge the quality of any Room-EQ this way? Saying, the less we hear, the better?

 

[Purité Audio]

Each speaker will have a different FR.
Keith

 

[Golf]

Each speaker will have a different FR.

Sure. But as a result of it, both speakers should sound totally equal for the listener’s ears at his/her desired listening location.

 

[Golf]

All right – I’ll take the response so far as a hearty and enthusiastic Yes! to my questions

 

[DVDdoug]

It doesn't tell you anything about EQ/frequency response. No matter what the frequency response, identical left & right channels will cancel completely when subtracted digitally or electronically. If left & right channels have different frequency response, you'll get the difference but that doesn't tell you anything about how accurate they are alone or together, only that they are different.

You would need mono (left & right identical), and in the real (acoustic) world you just won't get effective subtraction. The room would have to be perfectly symmetrical. And it would only work with a microphone... Your left & right ears are about 1 wavelength apart at around 2kHz.

Usually you CAN get pretty good bass cancelation. And the bass on most recordings is already mono.

 

[Golf]

You would need mono (left & right identical).

Jep. That makes sense, even to me