I switched the amp for 3 way bookshelf speaker from my long time serving NC252MP to the NC502MP because I wanted more power and because the NC252MP clipps now and again when I push it hard on my Marantz AVR.
To be honest, I was dissapointed. No doubt, no difference in the general sonic nature but the bass wasn't as clean. Now, I don't want to get subjective here, but to try and figure out where the difference might be coming from, my question relates to the idea around the fact that the power from the more powerful NC502MP in the 4ohms 313 watts(more from the spec sheet 400watts) might be providing too much wattage to the low bass driver(3. 6 ohms at 120hz) and around those frequencies and causing the bass not to be as presice? There was a thread on damping factor and how an amp provides power according to the impedance and there was a mention that differences in amplifiers could relate to how the amplifier provides power at different frequencies and although it something that we shouldn't worry about I am wondering if this is what happened here...?
There can't possibly be audible differences between these two amps.
The only other thing I can think of is that my Audiolense DSP was tuned in for the NC252MP. Can the DSP make such a difference even when two amps are transperant? I mean, can the DSP take in consideration the damping factor and when amps switch there can be a very small percieved difference?
To be honest, I was dissapointed. No doubt, no difference in the general sonic nature but the bass wasn't as clean. Now, I don't want to get subjective here, but to try and figure out where the difference might be coming from, my question relates to the idea around the fact that the power from the more powerful NC502MP in the 4ohms 313 watts(more from the spec sheet 400watts) might be providing too much wattage to the low bass driver(3. 6 ohms at 120hz) and around those frequencies and causing the bass not to be as presice? There was a thread on damping factor and how an amp provides power according to the impedance and there was a mention that differences in amplifiers could relate to how the amplifier provides power at different frequencies and although it something that we shouldn't worry about I am wondering if this is what happened here...?
There can't possibly be audible differences between these two amps.
The only other thing I can think of is that my Audiolense DSP was tuned in for the NC252MP. Can the DSP make such a difference even when two amps are transperant? I mean, can the DSP take in consideration the damping factor and when amps switch there can be a very small percieved difference?