Phelonious Ponk
Addicted to Fun and Learning
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- Feb 26, 2016
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Tim, I just updated/changed my previous reply to your post - it was late last night when I was replying & I didn't have the energy for a full reply. Yes, I understand your point & I believe I've answered it in my update?
Here?
"Sure, the missing fundamental is an easy example so we know what to measure to ensure that the missing fundamental is correctly recreated but there are lots of other processing tricks used that we don't know about so we don't know what/where to measure & to what level. So let's say that we didn't know the missing fundamental trick & how it works & we measured our waveform. Let's say that we find a slight discrepancy in the 5th harmonic but it is considered of no consequence as it is considered below audibility, yet it effects the perception of the fundamental, skews it in some audible way. Not knowing where to focus we see nothing wrong with the measured audio signal - all measurements are fine in the area above "audibility" so we conclude it's a delusion, right? This is where I'm saying we are with current measurements - we don't know where to look & we are using old audibility thresholds which need to be re-evaluated."
Is that speculative or is there something in this research that indicates that inaudible frequencies are triggering perceptual responses? I'm pretty sure that in music, if the 5th harmonic is inaudible and you're still getting the implied fundamental, the answer is much simpler: Enough harmonics are audible that the fundamental is implied without the missing 5th.
Tim