MattHooper
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The picture above shows a "broken" speaker. It cannot sound good. People prefer relatively flat frequency responses. If anyone thinks the speaker above sounds good, then they need to be educated on how to read colorful squiggly lines, and if they turn off the music and study the lines long enough they will be enlightened that the speakers they thought sounded good actually sound bad.
There are certainly grounds to call this a bad speaker, design, and grounds to say it will sound worse relative to a much better measuring speaker.
But I’m curious if we have really solid grounds to say the people would, hearing the speaker in blind conditions, actually say “ this sounds bad.”
What I’m getting at, is that blind speaker preference ratings, as far as I remember, don’t necessarily document people declaring “ bad sounding” so much as they document relative preference ratings. In other words, the fact one speaker is rated lower and preference than another doesn’t automatically entail “ it sounds bad.”
It just tells you that another speaker was rated higher. With issues like frequency, problems, or resonances causing people to read loud speakers as “ worse” than others.
Now, if you take the speaker rating scales, you could perhaps say “we’ll call anything below 4 or down “ bad” for sound quality.”
Which would be fine.
But I’m wondering, without actually putting this loudspeaker to blind listening tests, how confidently can we predict how low it would be rated (?). Would it just be rated lower than a better performing speaker - “ other speakers sound better than this one”? Or if asked to describe the sound, would a majority say “this sounds bad?”
I’m certainly not saying it’s not possible: the measurements look pretty bad, and even some sighted reports noted the midrange issues.
On the other hand, some people have listened to the Borresen speakers and thought they sounded “ good” or “ not bad all things considered.”
(I might be forgetting certain studies that directly address the question I’m asking… it’s been a while since I took a look at them)
This is science. If they paid for them, they will sell them and get something different.
Here’s where I would think you should be more careful about your confidence levels.
There have been all sorts of loudspeaker designs with wonky measurements that many audiophiles have kept for long periods of time, finding themselves satisfied.
There seems to be a common assumption on this forum that the type of measurement criteria derived from blind listening tests of loudspeakers translates into lasting satisfaction, and retaining that gear, over the typical purchase made via sighted listening.
As far as I’m aware, nobody has ever actually presented data supporting that. It’s basically just been assumed.
And anecdotally, having paid attention to polls about what equipment people own on sites like this, as well as the more traditional
“ subjectivist” sites, I haven’t seen any obvious trend either way.
For instance a poll on the heavily-subjectivist-Steve Hoffman forum asked members how long they have had their loudspeakers.
Even within the first several pages, plenty of people indicated they’ve held onto their speakers for a long time
And I don’t see any particular rhyme or reason as to which type of speakers led to such satisfaction given the variety of designs mentioned.
So what I’m saying is that, if we are really thinking with a scientific level of caution, we would be cautious about simply extrapolating the results of blind testing to claims about owner satisfaction levels - how lab studies predict or translate to the real world environment - without hard data. Otherwise it’s just making assumptions.
And if someone posts anything to the contrary, we will keep repeating the same arguments for 150 posts.
Hopefully we don’t need that
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