My response to those who claim such: Show me your data. If the difference is that clear, then show me that without prior knowledge of which is which, the claimant can distinguish between the two. Once they can prove with some statistical reliability that they can tell the difference, then let them choose a preference. All the usual controls are required.In recent discussions on other media (oa diyaudio.com) some people said ASR measurements are not valid because they don't measure "corrolated noise" and that kind of noise makes class D amps and digital sound like shit. They say you can't measure it with "test signals", only with real music.
I don't really know what they mean with that and how to respond on that (i know it's bullshit). But what is the right answer on that (with science attached please), i would love to be able to debunk that, but i lack the scientific/theoretic background to do it.
Their claim is based on something subjective, and this is a subjective test but subject to controls. And it requires no EE theory one way or the other, or arguments about what the heck is noise correlation (which none of them would be ablet to answer, and those who could, won't).
Unwilling to do the work of collecting rigorous data? Throw the BS flag.
Rick "data speaks with its own voice" Denney