kemmler3D
Master Contributor
No, inaudible noise (or anything else inaudible) can't have an audible effect if it's just linearly combined with the signal.1. Is that possible that the absence of noise makes the equipment and/or speakers perform better because the noise is not interfering with the actual music signal?
2. If so, are there any real world tests that explore this? I would imagine such a test would have to be one in a anechoic chamber or an otherwise sound isolated space using a very sensitive microphone. But even if you were to capture that sound, you still have to compare it somehow and make sense of it.
IMD seems like an appealing concept here, until you remember that IMD is usually -40dB below the signal even with a speaker cone, and we started out with the noise being inaudible, so we're 40dB below inaudible for that.
Noise won't somehow cause an exotic type of phase distortion, that's just wild nonsense.
And, as far as I know, inaudible noise doesn't cause subconscious effects on hearing that you then become secondarily aware of as bad sound quality. This is coming really close to arguing that placebo effect-type changes to the sound actually have a concrete cause... if you imagine they do. (think about that one.)
The speaker doesn't know if it's playing noise or signal. Inaudible noise doesn't make itself audible through secondary effects, it's just there mixed in with the signal. Or, you can think of it like this, to the speaker, everything is signal.Could the speaker theoretically perform better if there was no noise at all in the signal?