Hello! Im new to all of this, and I don't know all the terminology and thus have a hard time to search for an answer. But here goes!
I measured with a UMIK-1, 48k, 20-2000khz. No EQ have been applied. LR measurement is a "true" measurement, i.e not vector averaging L & R. But if I vector average I get essentially the same frequency response.
Ive got a pair on Genelec 8030s and I have this issue causing a big dip around the 13.5k. Just looking at the frequency responses of L & R it doesn't look like a dip in one channel would bring the LR measurement down.
1/3 Smoothing
Here is a 1/3 smoothed phase of L and R. As you can see the channels seems to be around 180 degrees, which if I understand correctly would essentially cancel out that frequency?
Non smoothed phase looks pretty all over the place?
And here is the LR phase
So.
* Is it common that L and R have such different phase response? Is it due to the room?
* What can I do to fix this? Do I have to use something like rephase or is one speaker defect?
Thanks!
I measured with a UMIK-1, 48k, 20-2000khz. No EQ have been applied. LR measurement is a "true" measurement, i.e not vector averaging L & R. But if I vector average I get essentially the same frequency response.
Ive got a pair on Genelec 8030s and I have this issue causing a big dip around the 13.5k. Just looking at the frequency responses of L & R it doesn't look like a dip in one channel would bring the LR measurement down.
1/3 Smoothing
Here is a 1/3 smoothed phase of L and R. As you can see the channels seems to be around 180 degrees, which if I understand correctly would essentially cancel out that frequency?
Non smoothed phase looks pretty all over the place?
And here is the LR phase
So.
* Is it common that L and R have such different phase response? Is it due to the room?
* What can I do to fix this? Do I have to use something like rephase or is one speaker defect?
Thanks!