Luvchampagne
Active Member
A common complaint by ASR members is that so called "inefficient" speakers, 85db or lower sensitivity for 2.83v at 1M, are inferior to efficient speakers, 90db or higher sensitivity. I find this complaint difficult to understand from an objective and scientific viewpoint, especially with amplifier power being relatively inexpensive these days.
1. Inefficient speakers perform poorly at low volumes. Can someone explain this concept since it makes zero sense to me.
A side question would be more in general, the concept of why certain speakers perform better at lower volumes than other speakers at the same volume. What science is behind that?
2. Inefficient speakers are poorly designed. I can actually understand this comment if there are no benefits to the inefficient design such as poor bass response. Otherwise, isn't speaker design, a series of tradeoffs to obtain a result? Size of cabinet. Bass response. SPL capability. What am I missing?
3. Side question - why do some people convert sensitivity level measured at 2.83v at 1M into different sensitivity level based on impedance? Example - 85db at 2.83v at 1M converted to 82db at 4 ohms. How is this conversion useful?
4. Is this just a preference due to already owning lower power amplifiers? If so, I get that. But that has little to do with better or inferior.
Thank you in advance.
1. Inefficient speakers perform poorly at low volumes. Can someone explain this concept since it makes zero sense to me.
A side question would be more in general, the concept of why certain speakers perform better at lower volumes than other speakers at the same volume. What science is behind that?
2. Inefficient speakers are poorly designed. I can actually understand this comment if there are no benefits to the inefficient design such as poor bass response. Otherwise, isn't speaker design, a series of tradeoffs to obtain a result? Size of cabinet. Bass response. SPL capability. What am I missing?
3. Side question - why do some people convert sensitivity level measured at 2.83v at 1M into different sensitivity level based on impedance? Example - 85db at 2.83v at 1M converted to 82db at 4 ohms. How is this conversion useful?
4. Is this just a preference due to already owning lower power amplifiers? If so, I get that. But that has little to do with better or inferior.
Thank you in advance.
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