I'm not technically inclined as most of this forum, and I mainly lurk to retain some information and glean some wisdom from time to time. So forgive me if this has been covered already, if this is a stupid question, and/or any negative perceived tone (I am just curious).
One thing that I can't seem to understand here on ASR is this "Harman Curve" for headphones, and the requirement for "compliance" to it as some benchmark. I totally understand a need to have a benchmark to rate things, but I am curious on the why. A quick search tells me that a Harman Curve is
From my understanding of ASR, everyone here has been preaching about a flat response being the benchmark for loudspeakers, as they are supposed to reproduce sound as neutrally as possible. So why does the standard differ for headphones (although Harman seems to want to apply this to loudspeakers as well)? Light search into the Harman Curve tells me that it is based on supposed aggregate preference. So if the Harman curve is allegedly preference, who says this is what I will like? Why do I need to get a flat response loudspeaker, but a curvy looking response headphone? Everyone here trashes certain brands of loudspeakers as not good when they exhibit a "house EQ" or a Harman Curve compliance, but when headphones have them, they are perfect. This does not make any sense to me.
Arguably, isn't Harman Curve just pushing the industry into making skewed sounding speakers? Thank you in advance, really interested!
One thing that I can't seem to understand here on ASR is this "Harman Curve" for headphones, and the requirement for "compliance" to it as some benchmark. I totally understand a need to have a benchmark to rate things, but I am curious on the why. A quick search tells me that a Harman Curve is
"a target frequency response curve in audio engineering, specifically for headphones and loudspeakers, that aims to simulate how most listeners perceive sound in typical listening situations."
From my understanding of ASR, everyone here has been preaching about a flat response being the benchmark for loudspeakers, as they are supposed to reproduce sound as neutrally as possible. So why does the standard differ for headphones (although Harman seems to want to apply this to loudspeakers as well)? Light search into the Harman Curve tells me that it is based on supposed aggregate preference. So if the Harman curve is allegedly preference, who says this is what I will like? Why do I need to get a flat response loudspeaker, but a curvy looking response headphone? Everyone here trashes certain brands of loudspeakers as not good when they exhibit a "house EQ" or a Harman Curve compliance, but when headphones have them, they are perfect. This does not make any sense to me.
Arguably, isn't Harman Curve just pushing the industry into making skewed sounding speakers? Thank you in advance, really interested!