We've all heard it:
- Yamaha is spacious and likes its bass
- Marantz is warm and colored
- Onkyo is dark and shimmering (whatever...)
- Audiolab is neutral and cold
- Cambridge is midrange-centric
Etc...
Where do these ideas come from? Is there any psychoacoustic or another basis for them? Maybe in the interaction between amp and speakers?
My AudioLab 6000a has a very level frequency response, about 0.2 dB down at 20 kHz. It does sound neutral. Arcam amps are routinely described as warm. I checked some reviews of budget ones, and they have an obvious roll off in the treble, over 0.6 dB down at 20 kHz in one case. Apparently a slew in the FR can be audible. My Arcam Solo Movie sounds muddy, consistent with a drop in the treble response. I cannot prove that, having no way to measure FR. It also has poor imaging, so maybe something is wrong, such as balance.
There is also the issue of load variance, a real world load with frequency dependant impedance can create peaks and dips in the FR. I have no idea how audible that would be, but it is measurable.
So yes, there are measurable effects that could explain these subjective impressions.
As to the question "Do amplifiers have a house sound", well I Iistened to my house and I heard some creaking from the roof, gurgling from heating pipes, and metallic clanking from birds messing around on the aerial above the chimney. I must admit I haven’t yet heard a similar sounding amplifier, but who knows, maybe I lack experience.