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Can You Trust Your Ears? By Tom Nousaine

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Fitzcaraldo215

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Couldn't it be seen as the other way round? i.e. defaulting to high resolution recordings instead of the cheaper, simpler, lower-bandwidth alternative, despite there being no evidence that it sounds better, is the reaction to FUD? The happy CD user is the supreme FUD rejector!

I think the evidence situation for hirez or for CD is controversial as to sound quality. There are counter arguments both ways and little incontestable hard evidence that one way sounds better. There is no evidence presented here or anywhere else that I am aware of to support the allegation that realworld hirez recordings actually induce audible intermodulation distortion in the audio band. That was the FUD I was referring to.

Obviously, if one prefers the sound of RBCD resolution or finds no benefit to hirez, one should use RBCD. But, I do not think there is a compelling technical argument that hires should be avoided.
 

Jakob1863

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Not exactly compelling but the possibility of raised IMD due to "hirez" content is a valid concern.....
 

Jakob1863

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<snip>

You bang on and on about protocol rigor, when the fact is that audible difference -- between cables, Redbook vs hirez, lossy vs nonlossy, and other A's and B's that should NOT be expected to exhibit major audible differences - are typically claimed to be *so* great , by audiophiles and by marketers, that even a less than grade-A ABX protocol should easily reveal them. These claims are the very *currency* of audiophilia.

You were lamenting about a "moving goalpost" but aren´t you presenting such a "moving goalpost" by the statement cited above? ;)
The "nonaudiophile believers" are usually argueing that a diffence can´t be heard (without further specification it has to be taken as "nobody is able to detect a difference") and to fast switch to another assertion - i.e. if not detected in every ABX setup it can´t be of relevance - is sort of a backdoor as the referring to "so great" actually is.

There is simply no common gauge for "great" or "so great" or "remarkable" or whatever description is sometimes used. I´ve written it before that verbalization of a multidimensional listening impression is a difficult task, but of course during in intensive occupation it surely happens that any description is an exaggeration (at least for people not dealing so intensely with it); IIRC Dave Moulton once wrote a nice piece about this occurence.

To be more specific, as we know from the experiments for "inattentional blindness" and the later experiments for "inattentional deafness" it seems to be quite easy to _not_ detect differences that are usually considered to be quite obvious.
Does the "gorilla" or the electro guitar qualify for the term "great/ so great" difference?
Or what about a difference that a listener does not detect at first but never fails to detect after being teached about it? Is it of relevance?
I´d say it depends which means one does not know in advance.

Additionally it depends on the conclusions/statement based on negative "ABX-results" (means ABX and all other test protocolls), the more generalized/categorical the more rigorous the experimental conditions should have been.

And while you , I'm guessing, do 'believe in' the utility of ABX , others who don't, and who really don't care a fig about protocol rigor (heck, they may even be on record as saying DBTs don't work for audio, period), suddenly become zealous about it as it suits them. That's a political tactic, not a scientific debate.

I hope we can agree that this a totally different topic. :)

And personally i experienced the mentioned difficulties with the specific conditions of the ABX protocol myself and in trying it with two other participants, so dropped it.
But i have to acknowledge that others obviously are doing well with ABX so will not generally dismiss it.
(One alleged reason for the difficulties i´ve cited earlier back from the 1960s)
 

Fitzcaraldo215

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Not exactly compelling but the possibility of raised IMD due to "hirez" content is a valid concern.....

I think there are valid concerns raised by Amir's measurements of some hirez recordings here:

https://audiosciencereview.com/foru...nside-your-high-res-music-testing-1-2-3.1992/

https://www.audiosciencereview.com/...our-high-res-music-linn-records-samples.2025/

https://audiosciencereview.com/foru...gh-res-music-2l-high-resolution-samples.2006/

Yes, there are ultrasonic extraneous idle tones and rising noise levels with frequency due to noise shaping. It cannot be denied these are real issues on these sample recordings requiring much better hygiene by the recording engineers.

But, as expected, actual ultrasonic signal levels generated by instruments and their harmonics in the ultrasonic regions decline with frequency and are characteristically quite low. Consequently, any IMD generated by ultrasonics should also be low in level, I would expect. And, if difference tones do beat down from the ultrasonic region, these IMD products are likely subject to considerable masking by the much higher signal levels in the audible band, which might generate their own IMD.

Obviously, engineering efforts to minimize IMD on hirez equipment should not be confined to just the audible frequency band, but those efforts should extend to ultrasonics, as well. Why wouldn't they?

I do not know if this IMD idea has been formally tested indicating a fatal flaw to all hirez. But, that would indeed be interesting.
 
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amirm

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I think there are valid concerns raised by Amir's measurements of some hirez recordings here:

https://audiosciencereview.com/foru...nside-your-high-res-music-testing-1-2-3.1992/

https://www.audiosciencereview.com/...our-high-res-music-linn-records-samples.2025/

https://audiosciencereview.com/foru...gh-res-music-2l-high-resolution-samples.2006/

Yes, there are ultrasonic extraneous idle tones and rising noise levels with frequency due to noise shaping. It cannot be denied these are real issues on these sample recordings requiring much better hygiene by the recording engineers.

But, as expected, actual ultrasonic signal levels generated by instruments and their harmonics in the ultrasonic regions decline with frequency and are characteristically quite low. Consequently, any IMD generated by ultrasonics should also be low in level, I would expect. And, if difference tones do beat down from the ultrasonic region, these IMD products are likely subject to considerable masking by the much higher signal levels in the audible band, which might generate their own IMD.

Obviously, engineering efforts to minimize IMD on hirez equipment should not be confined to just the audible frequency band, but those efforts should extend to ultrasonics, as well. Why wouldn't they?

I do not know if this IMD idea has been formally tested indicating a fatal flaw to all hirez. But, that would indeed be interesting.
Those are very good points. To be clear, masking will occur if the ultrasonic content is correlated with lower frequency ones as would be the case with music. In my videos I am finding uncorrelated ultrasonic that is there all the time. These as such, if intermodulation to lower bands, will be there even when music is quiet and hence, a theoretical case for audibility could be made.

As far as real observed issues, wasn't there a paper aiming to discredit Ishihara's test of ultrasonics with explanation that intermodulation was at work in testing he had done? I am not sure if that was confirmed with listening tests or it was theoretical. Let me look for it.
 

Jakob1863

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@amirm,

didn´t you mean Oohashi´s test of ultrasonics?
Ashihara did a test where he analyzed the reproduction of low and high frequency stimuli if played back with additional loudspeakers covering the high bandwidth channels and playback over just one loudspeaker covering the whole bandwidth.

Short summary of results: One loudspeaker covering the whole bandwidht (including high frequency content) showed IMD in the audio band below 20 kHz, while reproduction with seperated loudspeakers did not.

@Fitzcarraldo215,

as said, it is a valid concern, which doesn´t mean that is holds true in reality. :)

I was arguing along the same line as you did when considering the claim that Oohashis results were due to IMDs (after Ashihara´s papers were published) and i thought it would be unlikely.
But, although i think it´s a plausible/reasonable argumentation experimental corrobation is missing.

Edit: I weakly remember that there was an article showing that even with a dedicated tweeter only covering the high frequency content there was some distortion measured in the <20 kHz band. I have to search for it ....
 
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fas42

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Since many blameless amplifiers exist these days, including ones that operate at truly insane (in terms of loudspeaker power handling and human hearing safety) power levels, I don't think it is even remotely "as simple as that". You have, at least, formed a working hypothesis, but not yet one that is falsifiable. How will you make your assertion falsifiable?

Yes, science is hard. I do it for a living.
Yes, science is hard, especially if dictates what the nature of the human condition is, rather than just observe it, in particular circumstances ...

Out of curiosity, would you state that the perceivable qualities of reproduced sound are invariant to the level of impairment of the replay?
 

Cosmik

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Out of curiosity, would you state that the perceivable qualities of reproduced sound are invariant to the level of impairment of the replay?
If I impair the top end and effectively remove the hi-hats, the perceivable qualities of the reproduced sound are hardly invariant..?
 

fas42

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If I impair the top end and effectively remove the hi-hats, the perceivable qualities of the reproduced sound are hardly invariant..?
Yes, there are obvious examples - I'm suggesting there is a sliding scale for impairment, from the extremely obvious, to the extremely subtle, and that scale is continuous in nature ... the interesting end occurs with the extremely subtle.

An interesting read, right now: "Perceptual Spatial Audio Recording, Simulation, and Rendering", a 2017 article on the "SOTA".
 

j_j

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Out of curiosity, would you state that the perceivable qualities of reproduced sound are invariant to the level of impairment of the replay?

That's the converse of your unsupported claim that "good enough" stereo systems can get proper depth cues. Now you're trying to maliciously entice me into saying that yes, the reply system matters, so that you can then attempt the exercise of the fallacy of the excluded middle.

No, now you're not going to do that, or you're going to get rudely derided when you do. Obviously if I turn off one speaker, it matters. So at some level, obviously.

Do subtle changes matter? Sometimes they do, sometimes they don't. Room interactions matter. Background noise level matters. But none of these reply to the question of interaural cancellation of center-positioned panpotted stereo images, or even signals recorded with a properly spaced and angled cardioid pair. (Blumlein might recognize that method :) )

None of this reads on your claim about 'good enough' systems, because you still can't come up with a testable hypothesis.
 

fas42

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Do subtle changes matter? Sometimes they do, sometimes they don't. Room interactions matter. Background noise level matters. But none of these reply to the question of interaural cancellation of center-positioned panpotted stereo images, or even signals recorded with a properly spaced and angled cardioid pair. (Blumlein might recognize that method :) )
OK, moving on, do you believe the one and only method that human hearing can use for properly placing a central image in normal stereo is via "interaural time, level and spectral differences" - no other strategy by the ear/brain mechanism can substitute for this physical behaviour?
 
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j_j

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OK, moving on, do you believe the one and only method that human hearing can use for properly placing a central image is via "interaural time, level and spectral differences" - no other strategy by the ear/brain mechanism can substitute for this physical behaviour?

You keep trying to pony up straw men. How about first

1) You prove your extraordinary assertion about "good enough".
2) You provide a mechanism for this proof, showing how all of antenna theory, acoustical theory, and psychophysical theory are all wrong, and provide a proper revision.
3) You justify your profanely idiotic attempt at the fallacy of the excluded middle.

It is clear that it is not worth anyone's time engaging with you, you hold an unsupported belief, yet have the appalling nerve to demand counterproof for something that has never been put into evidence.
 

fas42

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Are you familiar with Bregman's work on Auditory Scene Analysis, and the highly active research that continues in this field?
 

fas42

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No, I'm suggesting a mechanism that may explain why the aural behaviour I have experienced, as have others, is possible.
 

NorthSky

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I enjoy the educative and respectful exchanges.
It's like two stars in the firmament filling the void of space.

It's a compliment.
 

j_j

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No, I'm suggesting a mechanism that may explain why the aural behaviour I have experienced, as have others, is possible.

It is possible that such could happen, especially guided by expectation. I would be curious to see what would happen when actual stimulii are used, and you are asked to represent the distance for images at various left/right locations.

There's also the issue of speaker pattern and the floor bounce from the listening room, but that's an additional confounder.
 

fas42

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It is possible that such could happen, especially guided by expectation. I would be curious to see what would happen when actual stimulii are used, and you are asked to represent the distance for images at various left/right locations.

There's also the issue of speaker pattern and the floor bounce from the listening room, but that's an additional confounder.
If you mean 'artificial' stimulii, yes, that would be interesting. IME the positioning of sound elements is very definite, and that appears to relate to the remanent echos picked up by the microphones, or added by studio manipulation. Completely contrived sound sources, not related to anything that a musical recording might contain, may be a different matter.
 

Thomas savage

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If you mean 'artificial' stimulii, yes, that would be interesting. IME the positioning of sound elements is very definite, and that appears to relate to the remanent echos picked up by the microphones, or added by studio manipulation. Completely contrived sound sources, not related to anything that a musical recording might contain, may be a different matter.
Frank, we have rules.. you want to argue bring evidence that’s pertinent beyond ‘what you reckon’ less you be restricted from yet another thread.
 

svart-hvitt

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I think the evidence situation for hirez or for CD is controversial as to sound quality. There are counter arguments both ways and little incontestable hard evidence that one way sounds better. There is no evidence presented here or anywhere else that I am aware of to support the allegation that realworld hirez recordings actually induce audible intermodulation distortion in the audio band. That was the FUD I was referring to.

Obviously, if one prefers the sound of RBCD resolution or finds no benefit to hirez, one should use RBCD. But, I do not think there is a compelling technical argument that hires should be avoided.

You are right; there’s no single empirical research piece out there that concludes once and for all that higher than CD quality is distinguished or better. Not long ago a meta analysis published by AES (I guess everyone read that one? Else, I can post link) stated that higher is distinguishable from lower resolution. However, the researchers needed the «magic» of large samples (meta) to conclude thus.

And the fact that higher is distinguishable from (after hundreds of listeners made thousands of listening tests) lower doesn’t mean that higher is perceived as better; because lower can, by many, be perceived as better.

Which means you probably can’t go terribly wrong with hi-res files... ;)
 
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