I noticed that when measuring the frequency response of my stereo loudspeakers in room, if I make them play together pink noise in mono, and measure using an RTA, I get + 6dB bass as opppsed to approx. + 3dB in the mid-high range, wrt the measurement of a single louspeaker playing the same pink noise. I suppose this is due to the fact that low frequencies, having long wavelength, sum coherently and therefore we get double the SPL (i.e., +6dB), whereas the mid-high frequencies having shorter wavelength and due to the multiple reflections of the room, sum incoherently, and hence the resulting measures amplitude is the sum of the rms amplitudes, resulting in something like +3 dB.
This means that the MEASURED response of both speakers playing together has approx 3dB higher bass with respect to the response of a single speaker.
Now my question is: is this bass "boosting" effect of both speakers playing together also perceived acoustically, or is it only something that appears in the measurements? In case it is, am I right in taking the measurement of both speakers playing together the pink noise as target for balancing the overall system response with EQ, or should I instead take the response of a single speaker? Something tells me that I should make reference to the response of one speaker only, or even better do an rms average of the two single-speakers playing alone since the response of the single speaker is the one I shoild rely on, rather than making reference to the response of both speakers playing together, but something else tells me that I should make reference to the response of both speakers playing together, since when listening to the stereo system this is what they normally do. If to the listener, the perceived system response changes like in the measurements, then only one of the two hypotheses must be correct, but which one?
This means that the MEASURED response of both speakers playing together has approx 3dB higher bass with respect to the response of a single speaker.
Now my question is: is this bass "boosting" effect of both speakers playing together also perceived acoustically, or is it only something that appears in the measurements? In case it is, am I right in taking the measurement of both speakers playing together the pink noise as target for balancing the overall system response with EQ, or should I instead take the response of a single speaker? Something tells me that I should make reference to the response of one speaker only, or even better do an rms average of the two single-speakers playing alone since the response of the single speaker is the one I shoild rely on, rather than making reference to the response of both speakers playing together, but something else tells me that I should make reference to the response of both speakers playing together, since when listening to the stereo system this is what they normally do. If to the listener, the perceived system response changes like in the measurements, then only one of the two hypotheses must be correct, but which one?