I respect Toole and Olive’s research and I understand that these are preferred response in blind test, though I do think Olive’s sample size is too small (usually 200-300 people in his various papers and only 50-60 in each strata like region, age etc) to safely establish a solid standard/target.
I personally like flat speakers more than coloured speakers (though not the case for headphones, I always feel harman curve having too much bass, I don’t need to eq my HD800s’s bass at all.)
But Are these preferred frequency response necessarily close to individual’s actual favourite response? I mean is it possible that an individual prefers flat and harman but at the same time prefer some different response more?
If that’s the case, wasn’t visiting shops and having as many demo as possible a more effective way than spending time reading measurements and analysing deviation from target(flat/harman) to find your favourite speakers and headphones, especially for non-professionals?
Then it circles back to just listen to the device...
True. It is enough to draw meaningful conclusions.
But the statistical inference from the small sample to the general public's preference is weak.
In other words, the conclusion itself is valuable and meaningful, but its power to apply/predict individual's preference is so weak.
Their research is more like small sample size social science instead of more reliable, repeatable, predictable physical science.
I always thought mixers and recording engineers used something like the Genelec 8341A SAM™ for near-field listening, aren't the high frequencies like playing Russian rolette with headphones?
If that’s the case, wasn’t visiting shops and having as many demo as possible a more effective way than spending time reading measurements and analysing deviation from target(flat/harman) to find your favourite speakers and headphones, especially for non-professionals?
What are these and how do they not show in the frequency response?At the end of the day, freq and freq responses is just one of the many aspects of sound and sound waves that go into our ears. There are also the reproduction of consonance and dissonance (like in rock and heavy metal)
This is literally frequency response.amplitude (not just it relates to dB/power/density of sound perceived but placing a sound at "right" amplitudes in a reproduction, or collection of sounds - aka contrast)
This is also frequency response.timbre (how are the harmonics and partials reproduced, giving you a truer sense of realism or not?)
Do you have references to literature where these terms are defined and quantified?and quite a few other attributes as well (e.g. sound wave interference - like binaural beats; and smearing, rhythm, and masking; etc.)
I realize that is what you posted, but so much of what goes into modern measurements has been studied, with papers and books written. I'll need to see some published sources that define and quantify those things otherwise it's like hearing common audiophile tropes like "pace, rythm, and timing".My point is simply that there are aspects of a sound that a FR curve won't capture/reflect ..
My point is simply that there are aspects of a sound that a FR curve won't capture/reflect ..
I don't honour Harman or any other curve for that matter. I mean why should I other than bass response they are pretty much the same thing
Main thing to understand is that response will change with loudness level and none of so called curves include compensation for it.
So for instance most hedaphones that blindly follow Harman curve at 72 dB will have raised bass response for +2 dB when you crunk it up to 84 dB and more so on as you rise it
So my advice is before baying equipment test your hearing and not blindly but medically (audiogram) and pick the one that best can scope with such and your personal preference preferably still having some headroom for compensation in those areas.
This is easy thing to do with speakers as most of amplifier still included equal loudness normalization controls
Which no one does so far and as stated should be included.
@Geert please stop that doesn't even qualify as scientific research and even if it did it's far from conclusive one.
130 test subjects from which half received training or were employed by them with out proper hearing check of course and conducted by them and not independently. If you don't see bias there you probably never will.
One hedaphones on which they simulated others while some physical characteristics can not be faithfully simulate
Not only amplitude but the bandwidth/q is significant. Psychoacoustically, boosted sub/lower bass will mask other bass and mid frequencies less than an equivalent boost let's say beyond 120-150hz would mask elsewhere. Boosts past this point are almost universally considered bad or deleterious to accurate timbre, usually result in "muddy" sound is the term that's always thrown around, and in contrast you can get away with much more in lower frequencies lower than that before things like intelligibility become a major problem. This will obviously present itself more obviously in some genres, for example in a tune with vocals it will be more obvious to almost everyone.I've found that I also prefer a couple of dBs less bass than Harman on headphones. So somewhere between Diffuse Field/Etymotic and Harman. The 'bass boost' is an average, so if you feel like it's too much don't force it. View attachment 106172
That's musical terms mostly (an a subject of controversy,but that's an other talk).What are these and how do they not show in the frequency response?