Let me turn the question around
- if that is the case, and given all the explanations you have been provided, why do you refuse to accept that perceptive bias is the likely cause of your perceptions. Don't claim that you do - because all your questions and statements here are based on rejection of that hypothesis.
Because I immediately understood, accepted, and set aside this line of probability, with its perceptual bias, because if there's no evidence to support what I've heard, there's nothing to clarify or discuss.
The second line of probability remains, where there's a difference in high-frequency reproduction.
Both lines equally lead to the biamping setup I currently have (Yamaha for highs, midrange, and A7 for lows).
I'm still purely theoretically interested in the second line of probability. Therefore, I'm using arguments in its favor.
Why do I consider this line of probability plausible enough to be worth discussing?
Previously, there were a couple of situations where, during listening sessions, several people claimed to hear an improvement from replacing the RCA cable with a much more expensive one. But no matter how hard I listened, no matter how hard I tried to isolate individual sounds, I heard no changes, leaving me in the absolute minority.
The same thing happened another time, when listening to two DACs. I again didn't hear a difference, unlike the other two people who claimed there was a significant difference.
This allowed me to have greater confidence in my critical listening skills.
In this case, I did hear a difference (or so I thought) in the high frequencies.
Besides, I was simply interested in this discussion
P.S. I don't know if our conversation is off-topic. If so, I apologize to everyone involved.