Do you understand what I am saying ?You’re “taking the piss” here, right?
Well I think he could be alluding to how some people listen to music from their phone speakers and they can recognize the favorite music and enjoy it - because the brain is filling in the gaps... rather large ones!!!You’re “taking the piss” here, right?
So which speaker was it??during a huge speaker search some years ago in which I listened to tons of different speakers, when I played some piano track on one loudspeaker I was taken aback. More than any other loudspeaker I had the sensation of actually sitting in front of piano keys striking a large solid piano.
Unusual? I have the impression that this happens more often than not, i.e., lower notes more on one side and higher notes more on the other. There is even thread here about this "30ft piano" effectBut also, it would be a rather unusual recording that is supposed to sound like what the pianist hears
www.audiosciencereview.com
Well we can measure a single note being played over its entire time period far beyond audible limits.I don't really know what ahofer is referring to but he could say exactly what he means. If we talking about 'gaps we are talking about very small differences between sounds that the human brain can make whole, like a piano chord that the human can clearly hear but maybe not the exactness/lackof a measurement but its not important to the listener because the whole is the music.
Perhaps look closely at and in the violin. The sound of a violin depends on so many factors including how notes are played.If someone claims a violin is a Stradivarius what measurements can you use to show it's not ? I assume you are in possession of a recording of a real one.
Now, if one were to do the same experiment, but with a recorded version of the same violins, I have no doubt that the preferences would be the same. So, the recording would not influence the outcome, even though it would not capture exactly how we would hear things in a live environment.
Perhaps not. It doesn’t seem relevant to measurements and fidelity, so I’m not sure what the point is. Usually raising those sorts of points in the context of a measurement debate is intended to sow confusion about the objective aspects of audio reproduction, but perhaps I misjudged.Do you understand what I am saying ?
We aren’t talking about verifying provenance here, we are talking about whether the sound waves produced by the two instruments are audibly indistinguishable.If someone claims a violin is a Stradivarius what measurements can you use to show it's not ? I assume you are in possession of a recording of a real one.
Interesting question for a science project! First of all, based on the question as worded, I take it to mean the test need not have anything to do with how it sounds to humans, but can instead be based entirely on measurements. With just one Stradivarius sample I do not think this is possible, but if you have access to many true strads and non-strads, you could probably train a neural network encoder to identify the strad class as follows.If someone claims a violin is a Stradivarius what measurements can you use to show it's not ? I assume you are in possession of a recording of a real one.
Listeners had the same preference for modern violins as the players, so no, you don't need any of this; you only need the sound. And as @rjp mentions, you can likely even train a model on it to distinguish a Stradivari from a plain violin with high confidence and accuracy.For measurements you need sufficient instruments which were made for the purpose. Instruments which measure the (recorded) sound of a violin are certainly not sufficient to proof or disproof the violin‘s origin. You need instruments which can analyse the structure of the wood the thing was made of, how old is this wood, does it come from the region of Cremona, does it fit into the pattern of known violins by Stradivari etc. Though you certainly need measurements, „feeling“ don‘t help.
So which speaker was it??