I'm currently looking at discussions on Infrasonic Bass and Subwoofers and have been wondering if infrasonic Bass can mask content above for example 20Hz? Could this be a reason why some say that they can audibly hear a difference when adding/removing infrasonic Bass? (Seen this different...
According to the spreading function in psychoacoustic model 1, when dz (masker-maskee separation)=0, the spl of the masking threshold is zero, which is obviously not true in real cases.
Is there any reason the spreading function is like this?