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On Digikey and other consumer electronic websites, you can find a ton of micro speakers with impedance as low as 8 ohm. I assume they're not fit to use in actual headphones since it's rare to find headphones with impedance less than 32 ohm nowadays. But why 8 ohm? Is it some magic number?

Yep, it can get quite expensive, so I decided to DIY my own barely scientific stand. It's going to be as simple as a Behringer mic in a cardboard box.

I guess I've figured it out already. I would need either a DAC with phantom power or a separate phantom power block. Since I already have a good DAC, I'll only buy a phantom power block and so be it.

I want to build some DIY headphones. I can't afford a measurement stand neither I'd like to wait until Amir measures them for free, so I decided to measure them in comparison with some reference-tuned headphones that I already own. I also would want to keep the equipment for further measurements...

UPD: This is headphone tuning paper or tuning cotton. At least that's how it is called on Aliexpress.

I saw them for sale somewhere but forgot how they were called.

I didn't notice any difference in timbre between my Porta Pro with and without foam pads on, that's why I called the foam transparent. :D Even thick foam pads make a difference because they increase the driver-to-ear distance, in my experience.

But is also very transparent and doesn't affect the timbre in any way. My Porta Pro sound exactly the same with and without default foam pads on, though a bit more or less loud. Fair point.

So it seems that it is an acoustic phenomenon. At least it seems to be true for the 2-5 kHz frequencies.

Let's suppose that the driver rests on the ear, protected with only a foam earpad, kind of Porta Pro-like. Is it because of the competitive advantage?

Ole Wolff's speakers have extensive documentation that looks convincing, but I haven't found any independent measurements. Their measurements were also made on an IEC318 coupler that doesn't measure honestly under 100 hz according to ISO, so I doubt that the actual frequency response is this...

Does anyone know if there were any experiments conducted to determine if Fletcher-Munson is a thing because of the way our ears perceive sound or the way our brains interprets it? If it is an acoustic phenomenon, the eardrum must be moving less in the lower frequency range than in mid and high...