I've read some interesting things regarding variation in individual headphones of the same model this weekend and wanted to hear some takes on this from here.
The first was this article:
https://www.innerfidelity.com/conte...ame-adjustments-focal-utopia-and-audeze-lcd-4
TL;DR is that Tyll and Bob Katz had different takes on two pairs of headphones and it turns out that both pairs of headphones they were comparing measured differently.
Then, was reading a bit about Sonarworks individual headphone calibration service, and found some people sharing their results at the end of this thread:
https://mixmasterforum.com/t/using-...-output-of-mac-for-headphone-correction/79/37
For example, here is their average measurements of the hd650 (they use a harman-ish compensation curve):
And here are the measurements of a couple people's individual pairs of HD650 after they sent them to sonarworks:
The differences seem to be within +/- 3db and some of these definitely seem like they would be audible. I bring up the circle of confusion in the title of this post because I wonder if some of the subjective differences in headphone evaluation could be attributed to variation in samples of the a model.
Anyone have access to empirical data of different headphone variance within a model? Anyone tried to get their headphones individually calibrated?
The first was this article:
https://www.innerfidelity.com/conte...ame-adjustments-focal-utopia-and-audeze-lcd-4
TL;DR is that Tyll and Bob Katz had different takes on two pairs of headphones and it turns out that both pairs of headphones they were comparing measured differently.
Then, was reading a bit about Sonarworks individual headphone calibration service, and found some people sharing their results at the end of this thread:
https://mixmasterforum.com/t/using-...-output-of-mac-for-headphone-correction/79/37
For example, here is their average measurements of the hd650 (they use a harman-ish compensation curve):
And here are the measurements of a couple people's individual pairs of HD650 after they sent them to sonarworks:
The differences seem to be within +/- 3db and some of these definitely seem like they would be audible. I bring up the circle of confusion in the title of this post because I wonder if some of the subjective differences in headphone evaluation could be attributed to variation in samples of the a model.
Anyone have access to empirical data of different headphone variance within a model? Anyone tried to get their headphones individually calibrated?
